Talk:maðr

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Latest comment: 5 years ago by Riqiz in topic Why?
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Why?[edit]

And WHY the shish it has a ð?--Manfariel (talk) 15:42, 7 December 2015 (UTC)Reply
Old Norse ending -r originally formed clusters with the preceding consonant rather than being its own syllable like English -er in manner. This indicated in the metric reading of poetry where it doesn't count as a syllable. Icelandic has -ur so this obviously changed subsequently but in Old Norse this resulted in dissimilation where n lost it's nasal feature and became continuant but maintained voicing. --Riqiz (talk) 05:04, 5 March 2019 (UTC)Reply