Talk:psephology

@Kiwima, Equinox: DTLHS has found a couple cites that are clearly relating to something very different from the sense that we have. Can you use your magical powers to figure out what it is and add it (assuming it can be cited)? —Μετάknowledge^{discuss/deeds} 00:15, 24 June 2016 (UTC)

Also we credit the coining to R. B. McCallum ("The British general election of 1945", 1947, which I cannot confirm is actually in the text), but the OED has "The British General Election of 1951" by David E. Butler as its earliest cite. DTLHS (talk) 00:29, 24 June 2016 (UTC)

I have added a quote about the coining of the term. It is written by David Butler, who claims credit for the first use in print (matching the OED version), but acknowledges Frank Hardie as having actually coined the term in 1948. Kiwima (talk) 01:08, 24 June 2016 (UTC)

The citations are so short that it isn't clear what they are talking about. Why do you think they are "clearly different"? Equinox ◑ 00:36, 24 June 2016 (UTC)

Erm, because elections aren't mystical, can't be equated to "Pythagorean number-values", and aren't of interest to theosophical publications? It's not hard to see the lack of relevance. —Μετάknowledge^{discuss/deeds} 00:55, 24 June 2016 (UTC)

I am pretty sure the citations are different because they were published before the coining of the term for the study of elections. Kiwima (talk) 01:08, 24 June 2016 (UTC)

@Metaknowledge I have found some citations that make the meaning of the older uses clear, and have added the definition. Kiwima (talk) 02:19, 24 June 2016 (UTC)