Reconstruction talk:Proto-Celtic/wegnos

Hi, I just wanted to ask why European scholars always try to argue that Celtic-Germanic would have the Greco-Latin -os endings? Why do they so? Is it because they lack in brain cells due to their non-existent past? --185.134.130.83 07:31, 30 December 2021 (UTC)

Indo-European, not Greco-Latin. And in the case of Celtic, we know because, well, the Gauls actually wrote it. —Rua (mew) 20:21, 31 December 2021 (UTC)