Talk:فصفص

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Latest comment: 4 years ago by Calak
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@Fay Freak: should be from Coptic ⲡⲉⲥⲡⲉⲥⲧⲁ (p-espesta).--Calak (talk) 21:35, 21 January 2020 (UTC)Reply

Why though … also the Coptic is derived from Aramaic anyway. Fay Freak (talk) 06:29, 22 January 2020 (UTC)Reply
It is clear. Initial f- (in faṣfaṣ) is from p-, Aramaic ʾaspastā can not explain it. p- (in Coptic) is something like al- in Arabic.--Calak (talk) 09:52, 22 January 2020 (UTC)Reply
There is also the form ܦܷܣܦܷܣܬܳܐ (pespestā) in Syriac though. Or has Syriac borrowed from Coptic too? Fay Freak (talk) 15:15, 22 January 2020 (UTC) Also, to use ⲡ- (p-) it must have switched gender to masculine, passing into Coptic. Not sure where and if this Coptic is attested but this is probably not the citation form? Fay Freak (talk) 15:18, 22 January 2020 (UTC)Reply
Well I have no idea; just know Aramaic form can not explain Arabic initial f-.--Calak (talk) 08:06, 23 January 2020 (UTC)Reply