Talk:𑀲𑀺𑀓𑁆𑀔𑀇

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Latest comment: 6 years ago by माधवपंडित
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@DerekWinters How did Marathi & Konkani retrieve the (śa) if in the Prakrit it had already evolved to /s/? -- mādhavpaṇḍit (talk) 05:11, 10 November 2017 (UTC)Reply

Also the case with Gujarati શીખવું (śīkhvũ) from Old Gujarati सीखइ (sīkhaï). -- mādhavpaṇḍit (talk) 05:13, 10 November 2017 (UTC)Reply
For Gujarati, સ and શ/ષ are, for the most part, in free variation. Thus, with the standardization of the language/spelling, the more etymologically correct form was probably chosen (compare debt, advance, etc.). In fact, the oldest Gujarati dictionary I have (under Goojratee on my home page) gives the spelling સીકવું. I might imagine a similar situation occurring with Marathi and Konkani. The 1900s were the greatest period of Sanskritization in quite a while for much of North India (I have little knowledge of the rest), and that would explain all the more "correct" forms being employed. DerekWinters (talk) 07:24, 10 November 2017 (UTC)Reply
Also Bengali শেখা (śekha). Bengali was the first Indian language to really Sanskritization during the Bengali Renaissance. But now that I think about it there is no /s/ in Bengali lol. —Aryaman (मुझसे बात करो) 11:22, 10 November 2017 (UTC)Reply
@DerekWinters: Makes sense. I also had no idea advance and debt were hypercorrections. Thanks! -- mādhavpaṇḍit (talk) 11:46, 10 November 2017 (UTC)Reply