Talk:bijáád

Also "his leg"?

Can this also mean "his leg" (singular)? 71.66.97.228 06:25, 26 January 2010 (UTC)

Yes. —Stephen 17:24, 25 May 2010 (UTC)

I believe "legs" should be part of the definition (it is not, now), because it is not immediately understood that this term can be either singular or plural. 71.66.97.228 01:55, 26 May 2010 (UTC)

All nouns are that way, because English places a lot of weight on singular vs. plural, while Navajo does not. It isn’t even necessary to include "/her/its/their" in every bi- entry, because all of them mean that...we can just put "his leg". It’s no different from definitions for Japanese, Chinese or Korean words, such as 匪徒. They do not specify the number and can be either plural or singular. When somebody tries to translate some words, it is assumed that he will learn some basics of the language first.

The important thing is the lemma form of the English meaning, and whether the unpossessed form is jáád or ajáád. The fact that the a- forms such as ajáád are actually possessed forms, meaning "somebody's leg", does not need to be specified, because it is basic grammar. Bi- forms also have synonymous yi- forms, but it’s something to learn from grammars rather than dictionaries. —Stephen 04:07, 26 May 2010 (UTC)

Also "her/its/their"?

Can it also mean "her/its/their"? 71.66.97.228 06:25, 26 January 2010 (UTC)

Yes. —Stephen 17:24, 25 May 2010 (UTC)